[Jimmy0607]

I just betted 120 on Uruguay ML +153

and 50 on the Draw at +236

Uruguay PK is at -124

Am I doing something wrong here?

[demize21]

only if they lose

[Jimmy0607]

yeah buti would lose pk if the lose as well

[betme]

whats the different between PK and draw ?

[Jimmy0607]

if you bet Pk that mean that if they tie your bet doesnt count

[betme]

oh i see... so PK = push and draw = win

[betme]

but i notice the book i use 5Dimes only have pk,+/- and not Draw,+/-

[TurkzZ]

i do the same somtimes too, it works out the same

[smitch124]

I just betted 120 on Uruguay ML +153

and 50 on the Draw at +236

Uruguay PK is at -124

Am I doing something wrong here?

That is nearly the same as getting a pk at -127, the team draws you lose $2 (win $118-$120) or nearly push.

Your team wins, you bet $170 to win ($183.6-$50) so $170 to win $133.60.

$170/$133.60 = -127.2

You are getting a slightly better deal just betting the pk straight.

[Wilforth]

It depends on the lines. If a game is essentially a toss-up and the lines all across are no greater than +220, for instance, a PK play is appropriate, so you don't risk losing 2 bets (as in ML and draw) should your team lose.
These things vary with persons anyways. As for me, I'd do a PK when a game is a toss-up but I like a particular side for good reasons and the odds all across are no greater than +220. I'd do dog ML and draw only in games involving huge dogs in which I'm overwhelmingly convinced that the huge favorite is either technically or situationally overrated and in which the the dog ML and draw are in excess of +300. In this case, I have to be convinced by some sound criteria that the huge favorite won't win. A case in point was the Germany/Finland game, which was Germany's first game post-WC qualification. If you used certain criteria and was convinced Germany weren't winning the game, then a Finland ML (+900) and draw (+400) were in order.

[mariomonte]

I just betted 120 on Uruguay ML +153

and 50 on the Draw at +236

Uruguay PK is at -124

Am I doing something wrong here?

No. It simply depends on the estimations of the 1x2 probabilities.
Generally it is very often superior to bet the best market lines from 1x2 instead of the best PK (AH) line.
Calculating the equivalent lines is rather trivial - and very useful especially for medium / small markets, e.g. Bulgaria or Austria.