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  1. 11-04-07 11:21 AM #1
    BrentCrude
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    Default Correlated parlay definition ruling needed?Is this a loophole?

    My favorite parlay that you can only play in baseball and hockey is this.

    Home team is around -125 to -180 on moneyline.But if you take them at -1.5 you get +140 to over +200 Of course in hockey it's allot harder to win by 2 points than in baseball.

    So I take the hometown moneyline favorite on two teams betting they cover -1.5 and then I always take the over on the two game totals.A measely $5 bet pays between $110-$170.

    Since I'm not making even money bets,this really doesn't fit the definition of being a correlated parlay bet.Some of the books that say they don't pay out on correlated parlays pay me on these bets.
    Last edited by BrentCrude; 11-04-07 at 11:25 AM.
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  2. 11-04-07 01:37 PM #2
    Justin7
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    That is a correlated play. If a book doesn't want you to bet that, they should fix their software.
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  3. 11-04-07 01:58 PM #3
    RickySteve
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    I would book the bets he describes.
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