Don't be a dumb **** and a smart ass Vanzack.....you are not new to this and you are educated as well so you should be able to understand what I am saying.
1) Basically your first paragraph is in reference I presume to sportsinsights.com. So in effect, you are telling me that this is not a falsifiable hypothesis....that is if I present evidence to say that betting against the public is profitable and documented by empirical research it does not count if I use SI since their business model depends on a particular paradigm. So pretty much it is not a falsifiable hypothesis according to you so i am not going to continue with this but it is true that SI operates as a website that monitors public opinion on the games and takes an anti-public approach. They have some of their own studies they have done as well as links to academic research. For those with an open mind and want to explore further here is the link:
http://sportsinsights.com/bettingagainstthepublic.aspx
2) One point you make is legit and deserves further comment:
"Can you please let us know how you know the numbers are real, and why any sportsbook would release these numbers?"
SI's sampling methods are suspect at best and not to be fully trusted. I for one do not necessarily agree with them but they are far superior to say Wagerline or sportsbooks that put up percentages of how many are not what side. As of right now, they are the best out there unless you are a manager at a sportsbook or something. Basically SI only samples from select books who agree to participate (this of course creates an inherent selection bias...are the books that participate any different than those that don't and my guess would be yes). They have the right idea in that they use random sampling from the books that participate but the fact that they have a limited selection of books is troublesome and sort of invalidates the percentages. They may well be correct or not to far but given that books who participate self-select it is troublesome at best.
Why do books release those numbers? Your guess is as good as mine. Again, a number of possible reasons include such things are marketting since the online gaming industry is very competitive and/or books recognize that there is a big audience of bettors who use SI and therefore they know that "anti-public bettors" can help balance action.
Anyway, there are a number of articles in academic research journals that feature peer review (i.e.
Journal of Sports Econimic) that make very persuasive cases using real data about the relationship between underdogs, unders and value. Not surprisingly, betting pecentages tend to be corrleated with specific sides of games. Don't take it from me, go to a library and find these articles yourselves. They are out there....
And if you had read my post more carefully Vanzack before you jumped to your trite and predictable response on this topic you would have noticed that I did not say that betting against the public
causes winning. I said it is an issue of causality. Clearly, public percentage would function as a moderator variable in any causal relationship.
There is absolutely no way that betting percentages determine the outcome of a game...it's just not theoretically possible. If it is so, I would love to see a theory that has public percentages as an exogenous variable. That model would crash and burn so fast.....
My advice....handicap a game based on the available information out there (players, coaches, stats, homefield, etc...). Betting percentages are just a (controversial) tool to use in your analysis and that's all they are. I don't think they should be disregarded. At the very least they should help you determine line movement.
Good luck....