So many games decided by one run in the big leagues, also many times teams do not bat in the bottom of the 9th and those home teams usually laying the runs.
Stay away from them
| Poster's Sportsbook Poll: 2011View Poll Results | ||
| # 1 5Dimes | 450 total points | 5Dimes Review |
| # 2 Pinnacle | 408 total points | Pinnacle Review |
| # 3 Heritage | 227 total points | Heritage Review |
| # 4 Bookmaker | 138 total points | Bookmaker Review |
| # 5 BetIslands | 129 total points | BetIslands Review |
| SBR Top-Rated SportsbooksRecommended List | ||
| Pinnacle Sports | SBR Rating A+ | Pinnacle Sports Review |
| 5Dimes | SBR Rating A+ | 5Dimes Review |
| BookMaker | SBR Rating A+ | BookMaker Review |
| Legends | SBR Rating A+ | Legends Review |
| Bodog | SBR Rating A | Bodog Review |
So many games decided by one run in the big leagues, also many times teams do not bat in the bottom of the 9th and those home teams usually laying the runs.
Stay away from them
SBR Founder Join Date: 7/20/2005
I think the exact number of 1 run games is 30%, Coach.
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/20/2005
Based on 19,681 games worth of Covers data from the 1999-2006 seasons, 27.6% ended with a MOV of exactly 1 run and 15.16% ended with a money line favorite MOV (or home team MOV if neither team was favored) of exactly 1 run.
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
If you're using a book such as Pinnacle, which deals dime run lines, then you'll typically see a reduction in vig when moving away from a money line between relatively evenly matched teams and an increase in vig when moving away from a money line with one team a relatively large favorite.
For example, look at tomorrow's Houston/Philly game. Philly's a -111 to +103 favorite on the money line, for 1.833% vig. On the run line Philly's -169 to +159 for 1.415% vig.
Conversely, look at tomorrow's Tampa Bay at Minnesota game, where the Twins are -201 to +185 faves on the money line for 1.831% vig. and -1½ +101 faves to -111 on the run line for 2.304% vig.
Another issue is that run line dogs are offered at shorter odds than the same side on the money line, and run line faves at longer odds than the same side on the money line. Hence, from the perspective of expected growth maximization, were the +EV (same) sides of money lines and run lines sufficiently closely valued, there would then be incentive both to betting the +1½ in preference to the money line, and to betting the money line in preference to the -1½.
Of course this latter argument will hold little weight for those that subscribe to the lottery mentality of sports betting, but for advantage bettors (whom we'd generally expect to avoid such ultimately detrimental staking strategies) it's clearly the superior option from the perspective of growth maximization and risk minimization.
Now this isn't to say that other factors won't be involved in determining whether to bet the money or the run line (factors such as those indicated by RickySteve and The HG), but rather that clearly lacking these other factors the decision can be made easier by the above.
So a couple of examples to summarize. All else being equal,Florida -104 -1½ +155if you like Atlanta, then based on the above you should clearly go with the +1½ -165.
Atlanta -104 +1½ -165
And all else being equal,Washington +174 +1½ -120if you like the Mets you should clearly go with the -182.
N.Y. Mets -182 -1½ +110
REPOST
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/20/2005
Great question.
In the case of Florida, although (all else equal) the money line would provide a better opportunity from a bankroll growth perspective (shorter odds), that market is offered at higher vig than the run line market (1.92% vs. 1.46%). As such without knowing some measure of edge1 the superior bet is indeterminate.
If we assume a zero-vig edge of 3%, the money line win probability would be 51.5%2, and the run line probability would be 39.8%3, corresponding to edges of 1.02%4 and 1.50%5, respectively. This implies expected log utility for the money line of 0.0054%6 and expected utility for the run line of 0.0072%7. So in this case the run line would be superior.
However, if we assume a zero-vig edge of 10% ,the money line win probability would be 55.0%, and the run line probability would be 42.5%, corresponding to edges of 7.88% and 8.40%, respectively. This implies expected log utility for the money line of 0.3240% and expected utility for the run line of 0.2253%. So in this case the money line would be superior.
So the idea is that when comparing short odds/high vig to long odds/low vig the preferred bet would indeterminate without looking at edge. If the edge were relatively small then the lower vig bet would dominate; while if the edge were relatively large the shorter odds bet would dominate.
- Any measure of edge for either of the markets would work -- remember we're assuming that two markets ex-vig are priced to yield equivalent edges. I do want to stress that in the real world this may very well not be a valid assumption. In this post I use zero-vig (i.e. mid-market) edge.
- -104/-104 (dec: 1.9615) implies a zero-edge win probability of 50%, so at 3% edge:
prob = (1+3%)×50% = 51.5%- +155/-165 (dec: 2.5500/1.6061) implies a zero-edge win probability on the dog of of ~38.6%, so at 3% edge:
prob = (1+3%)×38.6% ≈ 39.8%- edge ≈ 1.9615 × 51.5% ≈ 1.02%
- edge ≈ 2.5500 × 39.8% ≈ 1.50%
- E(U) = prob * ln(1 + edge) + (1-prob) * ln(1 - edge/(odds -1))
≈ 51.5% × ln(1 + 1.02%) + (1-51.5%) × log(1 - 1.02% / 0.9615)
≈ 0.0054%- E(U) = prob * ln(1 + edge) + (1-prob) * ln(1 - edge/(odds -1))
≈ 39.8% × ln(1 + 1.50%) + (1-39.8%) × log(1 - 1.50% / 1.5500)
≈ 0.0072%
etc. ...
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
I think the only time a run line might be worth a play is a very strong offensive team alying less than -120.
SBR Founder Join Date: 7/20/2005
Dividing a wager over the ML and RL is often a good way to bet bigger favorites.
SBR Founder Join Date: 12/14/2005
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/25/2005
The methodology you're using to calculate vig is incorrect.
+155 => 100/(100+155) ≈ 39.22% probSee the thread An introduction to expectations and theoretical hold for the way to properly calculate theoretical hold in general or check out my Scalp/Vig Calculator. (Enter +155 into "Outcome 1 Line" and -165 into "Outcome 2 Line". The negative of "% Profit" corresponds to the vig.)
-165 => 165/(100+165) ≈ 62.26% prob
market overround ≈ 39.22% + 62.26% ≈ 101.48%
Vig = 1 - 1/overround
≈ 1 - 1/101.48%
≈ 1.46%
market probability = 39.22%/101.48%
≈ 38.64%
mid-market price (i.e.. "zero-vig price") ≈ ±100 × (1/38.64% - 1)
≈ ±158.8
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
Yeah, exactly. US-style odds, while convenient for eye-balling purposes, are of little use quantitatively.
You might fund this Excel template with some commonly-used (by me, anyway) VBA odds functions: http://forum.sbrforum.com/players-ta...tml#post256487
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
Great explanations Ganch!
Personally, I look to lay the 1.5 run for good plus money when the total is 10.5 or higher. I dont think you can make money long term taking the 1.5 run and having to put up -140 or higher.
SBR POKER TOURNEY1st Place 3/31/2012
CHARITY DONOR
12/01/2011
$475 donation
SBR Founder Join Date: 7/12/2005
SBR POKER TOURNEY1st Place 5/12/2012
ganchrow wrote:
********
Based on 19,681 games worth of Covers data from the 1999-2006 seasons, 27.6% ended with a MOV of exactly 1 run and 15.16% ended with a money line favorite MOV (or home team MOV if neither team was favored) of exactly 1 run.
*************
And I thank you Ganch for all the great info in so many threads.
I wonder if your program that got the above results would be able to consider only games where the home team is the favorite (but not an extremely heavy favorite). Maybe, -110 to -180 on ML. What % of these games end with home team MOV = 1?
Thanks
hhsilver
By the way, this is my first post. I am confused about the "quote message in reply" option. Which message? there are many in this thread. In this case I just copy/pasted Ganch's message. Had I checked the box , would I have been prompted as to which message?
Anyway, great site guys. I've been lurking for a couple months - finally joined.
SBR POKER TOURNEY14th Place 5/24/2012
SBR POKER TOURNEY11th Place 5/28/2012
SBR POKER TOURNEY1st Place 5/14/2012
CHARITY DONOR
11/29/2011
$25 donation
SBR POKER TOURNEY2nd Place 5/17/2012
SBR POKER TOP 100
53rd Place 11/1/2011
SBR POKER TOURNEY5th Place 5/21/2012
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
Thanks Ganchrow -- That % is pretty close to what I got by grinding the data out from a site that made such data available. Of course I have a much smaller sample, but large enough that I considered it significant (or at least hoped it was).
I have some ideas about betting against a 1 run home-fav MOV by taking +odds on both the run line and money line if the odds are sufficiently high in each case. At Pinnacle, which I can't use anymore :-( , in '05-'06, I found many games with high enough odds that non 1 run home MOV >or= about 81 or-82% of the time would lead to profit. Roughly, by the way I was betting , I felt I the break even pt was about 4.3 "small wins" for each loss of both bets (Mov=1).
Actually I was betting very small for the entertainment value of having action in a sport I haven't enjoyed since I used to go to see Clemente, Groat, Law, Friend , Virdon, Maz,.....at Forbes Field as a kid. As a result, I got a little more intersted in baseball for the first time in years.
I won in '05 doing this. Lost in '06, but was encouraged by a significant comeback after a horrible first month. The loss for the season was pretty small. Made me wonder if there were more 1 run home-fav wins early in season. In '05 I didn't start until well into June. I haven't been keeping data, but it seems there are many such 1 run games so far this year.
Any thoughts on this?
SBR POKER TOURNEY14th Place 5/24/2012
SBR POKER TOURNEY11th Place 5/28/2012
SBR POKER TOURNEY1st Place 5/14/2012
CHARITY DONOR
11/29/2011
$25 donation
SBR POKER TOURNEY2nd Place 5/17/2012
SBR POKER TOP 100
53rd Place 11/1/2011
SBR POKER TOURNEY5th Place 5/21/2012
Also, Ganchrow wrote:
To quote a message, just click the label entitled "Quote Post" at lower right of that message.
*******************
I don't see that "quote Post" label. Can't figure out why. I looked in options/settings and didn't see anything that might apply. what I see is "options -----__ Quote message in reply?" at the bottom of the entire thread. I can't understand which message of the thread this applies to. I assure only the bottom one.
No problem , I can copy/paste. But I like the way other users quote are in a shaded box.
hh
SBR POKER TOURNEY14th Place 5/24/2012
SBR POKER TOURNEY11th Place 5/28/2012
SBR POKER TOURNEY1st Place 5/14/2012
CHARITY DONOR
11/29/2011
$25 donation
SBR POKER TOURNEY2nd Place 5/17/2012
SBR POKER TOP 100
53rd Place 11/1/2011
SBR POKER TOURNEY5th Place 5/21/2012
Your hypothesis is that the likelihood of a game ending with a moderate home favorite's MOV of exactly 1 is lower than that anticipated by the market.
So let's break this down. With this hypotheis what you're saying is that on average in the case of a moderate home fave, either the home -1½ run line is undervalued, or the visitor money line is undervalued, or both. Furthermore you're saying that you expect this to be true regardless of the total.
Now ostensibly if you're making both these bets it would be because both have value, or else you'd only be betting one. (Although as per Kelly even if only one had value it might still make sense to bet the other in smallish size as long as it didn't have that much negative value -- but I don't get the impression that that's what you're doing here).
But what I don't get is why exactly we should expect that in the case of every moderate home fave that there exists value in not one but two very common market bets. We're not talking about some difficult-to-uncover phenomenon, we're talking about a very straightforward pair of bets that would be simple to identify. What I'm getting at is that if you plan to continue making these bets you should definitely think long and hard about 1) why this mispricing exists; and 2) what fundamental flaw exists in the market such that it would be rationale to expect this gross mispricing to persist.
Personally, I'd be skeptical.
You'd also meed to properly test your hypothesis which I'd urge to do "out-of-sample". This means that you need to test your hypothesis on a segment of data different from that used to formulate your hypothesis (this is called "in-sample"). If not then you run the risk of data mining.
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
I don't even know what to say here. I hope no one takes real stock in this irresponsible article. It's making a claim, haphazardly throwing around some numbers, and then intimating that those numbers support the initial claim. They don't. They don't even address the initial claim.
It certainly could be true that due to baseball market-specific infrastructure there's generally more value in playing the -1½ than the money line, and more value in the money line than in playing the +1½, but the article doesn't present either evidence for or logical arguments in support of that hypothesis.
Where did you find this article, anyway?
Of course you win less per unit bet when taking a bigger favorite or a smaller dog ... but that's because there's a greater likelihood of a bigger favorite winning or smaller dog winning. But that by itself doesn't make a shorter odds wager an inferior bet.
In fact, all else being equal, as I've already explained in a previous post it makes it a more attractive wager.
Obviously that is indeed the relevant issue. However, generalizing across all home/away favorites, as the author has, is grossly inappropriate.
You think?
Where did you find this beast?
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005
He wrote this? Really? Well that certainly does not speak well of the "greatest capper in Vegas".
Anyway, completely irrespective of the author, whether it's Andy Iskoe, JR Miller, Bozo the Clown, or anyone else, the article is nothing more than a very poor, very vacuous attempt at quantitative analysis.
The reason I get so worked up about this is because I used to see these types of tout-pieces all the time when I was in finance. They were typically works of so-called technical analysis (aka "charting") written by authors trying to come off in a quantitative and in depth manner. But at their core, exactly like Iskoe's run line foolishness, these articles are absolutely nothing more than fluff pieces designed to snare the unwary, and trick them into forking over their money.
As I said before, the underlying claim of the above article certainly could be true, but the article gives absolutely no evidence or rationale whatsoever that a careful reader could use to determine whether to accept or reject the hypothesis.
You know what? Maybe the promised next part of this article, if it exists, contains usable argument or statistics. But without that? Pure gobbledy-gook.
SBR Founder Join Date: 8/28/2005