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  1. #1

    Default Why is this -eV

    New York Yankees +153
    Philadelphia Phillies -1.5 +144

  2. #2

  3. #3

    Default

    Because the Phillies will win by 1 x% of the time?

  4. #4

  5. #5

    Default

    Quote Originally Posted by jellobiafra View Post
    What if PHI wins by 1?
    What is the % of that happening is what I'm wondering. Then we can find out. Or what is the chance games end in 1 differential run for the fav?

    Quote Originally Posted by roasthawg View Post
    Because the Phillies will win by 1 x% of the time?
    and that is?

  6. #6

    Default

    you are betting, roughly, $200 to win $49.

    Or -408 to the prop will the Phils win by 1 run? No
    175 pts

    3-QUESTION
    SBR TRIVIA WINNER 05/17/2012


  7. #7

    Default

    This being the world series and all there may be a prop like that out there, would be interesting to see what it was....
    175 pts

    3-QUESTION
    SBR TRIVIA WINNER 05/17/2012


  8. #8

  9. #9

    Default

    you can get phillies 3:1 at Bodog to win by exactly 1 run. didnt scope other sites out

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