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Old 05-03-09, 11:39 AM   #1
ohdear
 
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Default Which way will leave me with the most money???

  1. Blindly betting 1,000 -110 spreads
     
  2. Blindly betting 1,000 +140 ML's on a (+140/-160 line)
     
  3. Blindly betting 1,000 -160 ML's on a (+140/-160 line)
     
  4. Blindly betting 1,000 +750 ML's on a (+750/-1000 line)
     
  5. Blindly betting 1,000 -1000 ML's on a (+750/-1000 line)


If I start with a $10,000 bankroll in all independent cases, and bet $10 on every game, what is my expected loss on all of these? Obviously I will expect to lose money in ALL cases, but betting which one would kill me the most?
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Old 05-03-09, 01:04 PM   #2
Peep
 
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Should be easy to figure out.

Are you betting your $10 on the dog or the favorite, or on both?
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Old 05-03-09, 01:51 PM   #3
Pancho sanza
 
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Are you betting 10 bucks no matter which option you take?

if thats the case, and assuming the prices are perfect and the vig is spread equally over the dog/fav, would have to be either +750 or -1000 since that straddle has least the least vig.
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Old 05-03-09, 03:41 PM   #4
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In order from highest ending bankroll to lowest ending bankroll...

E, C, D, B, A

I will also accept E, D, C, B, A as correct.
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Old 05-03-09, 05:58 PM   #5
u21c3f6
 
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A. $9,545
B & C $9,689
D & E $9,740

Balance of bankroll after 1,000 $10 wagers.

Joe.

Last edited by u21c3f6; 05-03-09 at 06:15 PM. Reason: Clarification sentence.
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Old 05-03-09, 06:21 PM   #6
ohdear
 
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Thanks everyone but how do you come up with these #'s?? Can someone type out the equations you did?
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Old 05-03-09, 06:45 PM   #7
Ganchrow
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Quote:
Originally Posted by ohdear View Post
Thanks everyone but how do you come up with these #'s?? Can someone type out the equations you did?
See:
http://forum.sbrforum.com/handicappe...rcentages.html

-and-

http://forum.sbrforum.com/handicappe...ical-hold.html
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