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Old 12-14-08, 10:58 PM   #1
square1
 
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Default Theoretical Hold on Pleasers & Teasers

I'd appreciate any critical feedback to the following reasoning:

5Dimes pays +100 on 6-pt. NFL 2-team teasers, implying a break-even win pct. of 70.7% on each leg.

They pay +600 on 6-pt. NFL 2-team pleasers, implying a BE win % of 37.8% on each leg.

Assume a non-integer spread, just so we can ignore pushes.

If you "tease" one team, and "please" their opponent, exactly one bet will hit, and one will miss.

Since 70.7% + 37.8% = 108.5%, we can say:

1) If teasers and pleasers have the same hold, that hold is 8.5%.
2) Either the teaser or the pleaser must have a hold of at least 8.5% in any game.
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Old 12-14-08, 11:38 PM   #2
Ganchrow
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Sounds reasonable, although FWIW your terminology is slightly wrong.

1 2 + 1 7 ≈ 108.5% is the so-called overround.

The hold would be 1- 1 108.5% ≈ 7.840%.

(And, while this is likely beside your point, I'll just mention that the 7.840% would be the hold on a purely hypothetical 1-team teaser/pleaser. The fact that one would in reality be parlaying multiple teased/pleased games would obviously increase that hold. Hence, if we assumed teasers and pleasers had the same hold (for all games), the hold on a 2-teamer would be 1 - (2 *7) (√2 + √7)2 ≈ 15.07%.)
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Old 12-15-08, 07:32 PM   #3
square1
 
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Gotcha. Thanks.
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Old 12-20-08, 08:07 PM   #4
unit1884
 
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I did the math on 5dimes pleasers a while ago and they numbers are not good. Your losing big time...

DO NOT bet Pleasers at 5dimes under ANY circumstances.
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