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Old 05-25-2008, 10:57 AM   #2 (permalink)
Ganchrow
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Bullajami View Post
I am trying to figure the statistical relevance and reliability of a bet selection methodology, but I need some help.

All of the bets are on moneylines.

60 bets were made using 1% as the betting unit, and 33 bets were made using 2% as the betting unit. After 93 bets I am up 20%.

What, if any, conclusions can be made at his point about this strategy?

Thanks in advance for your help.
At what odds were each of the 93 bets placed?

When you refer to 1% as the "betting unit" is that a "to-risk" amount or a "to-win" amount?

Are you compounding your bets so that had you started with 100 units and then found yourself up 10 units, would 1% then imply a wager of 1 unit or of 1.1 units?
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